MOLECULAR BASIS OF INHERITANCE

1. Double stranded and Circular DNA occurs in -(1) Golgi body(2) Mitochondria(3) Nucleus (4) Cytoplasm 2. The Double helix model of DNA proposed by Watson and crick was of-(1) C-DNA (2) B-DNA (3) D-DNA (4) Z-DNA 3. Select the correct number of nucleotides, if there are 10,000 nitrogenous base pairs in a DNA (1) 500 (2) 10,000(3) 20,000 (4) 40,000 4. DNA Double helix model was proposed by-(1). Watson and Crick (2) Schleiden Schwann (3) Singer and Nicholson (4) Kornberg and Khorana 5. In structure of DNA molecule, back bone is made up of -(1) Pentose Sugar and phosphate(2) Hexose sugar and phosphate(3) Purine and pyrimidine(4) Sugar and phosphate 6. In DNA and RNA common Substance is (1) Hexose Sugar (2) Histamine (3) Thymine (4) Phosphate groups 7. What is Nucleotide (1) N2 - base, pentose sugar and phosphoric acid (2) Nitrogen, Hexose sugar and phosphoric acid (3) Nitrogen base, pentose sugar (4) Nitrogen base, trioses and phosphoric acid 8. Unit of nucleic acids are-(1) Phosphoric acid(2) Nitrogenous bases (3) Pentose Sugar(4) Nucleotides 9. Elementwhich is not found in nitrogenous base:-(1) Nitrogen (2) Hydrogen (3) Carbon (4) Phosphorus 10. Who discovered DNA first?(1) Meischer (2) Robert Brown (3) Flemming (4) Watson & Crick 11. In …………… Nucleic acid (DNA) is not found.(1) Nucleus &nucleolus (2) Peroxisome&ribosome (3) Mitochondria &plastid (4) Chloroplast & nucleosome 12. DNA is not present in -(1) Mitochondria (2) Chloroplast(3) Bacteriophage (4) TMV 13. A nucleic acid contains thymine or methylated uracil then it should be (1) DNA(2) RNA(3) Either DNA or RNA(4) RNA of bacteria 14. Prokaryotic genetic system contains -(1) DNA & histones(2) RNA & histones(3) Either DNA or histones(4) DNA but no histones 15. A N2- base together with pentose sugar and phosphate forms (or) building - block unit of nucleic acid is :-(1) Nucleoside (2) Polypeptide(3) Nucleotide (4) Amino acid 16. ………..is not a pyrimidine N2 base -(1) Thymine (2) Cytosine(3) Guanine (4) Uracil 17. In DNA, the purine & pyrimidine pairs of complementary strands are held together by – (1) H - bonds (2) O – bonds(3) C - bonds (4) N - bonds 18. Hydrogen - bonds between guanine and cytosine are -(1) One (2) Two(3) Three (4) Four 19. In DNA which purine & pyrimidine bases are paired together by Hydrogen bonds (1) AC & GT (2) GC &AT (3) GA & TC (4) None of the above 20. In……………a single stranded DNA is present (1) TMV (2) Salmonella(3) f x174(4) Bacteria 21. With the help of which loop, t - RNA attach to larger subunit of ribosomes(1) DHU - loop (2) Ty C loop (3) Anticodon loop (4) Minor loop 22. In bacteria the codon AUG stands for -(1) Glycine (2) Methionine(3) N- formyl methionine (4) Alanine 23. The three dimensional view the of t-RNA molecule is (1) L-shaped (2) S-shaped (3) Y- shaped (4) E-shaped 24. The DNA site at which RNA polymerase binds during transcription is called:-(1) Promoter (2) Regulator(3) Receptor (4) Enhancer 25. During transcription, if the nucleotide sequence of the DNA strand that is being coded is ATACG, then the nucleotide sequence in the mRNA would be(1) TATGC (2) TCTGG(3) UAUGC (4) UATGC 26. RNA which has a structure resembling clover leaf?(1) rRNA (2) hnRNA(3) mRNA (4) tRNA 27. ………………… makes use of RNA as a template to synthesize DNA –(1) DNA dependant RNA polymerase(2) DNA polymerase(3) Reverse transcriptase(4) RNA polymerase 28. With the help of …………………cDNA probes are copied from the messenger RNA molecules (1) Restriction enzymes(2) Reverse transcriptase(3) DNA polymerase(4) Adenosine deaminase 29. Which enzymeis responsible for transcription?(1) D.N.A polymerase-I(2) R.N.A. polymerase(3) Reverse transcriptase (4) D.NA. polymerase-III 30. If the base sequence in DNA is 5′ AAAA 3′ then the bases sequence in m-RNA is:-(1) 5′ UUUU 3′ (2) 3′ UUUU 5′(3) 5′ AAAA 3′ (4) 3′ TTTT 5′ 31. Choose the correct order of molecular weight (1) DNA < r-RNA < t-RNA (2) DNA < m-RNA < r-RNA (3) t-RNA < m-RNA <DNA (4) t-RNA < DNA < m-RNA 32. The genes are responsible for growth and differentiation in an organism through regulation of………..(1) Translocation (2) Transformation (3) Transduction and translation (4) Translation and transcription 33. By which method, information reaches from DNA to RNA?(1) Transcription (2) Translation (3) Transformation (4) Transduction 34. DNA acts as a template for synthesis of:-(1) RNA (2) DNA (3) Both ′1′ and ′2′ (4) Protein 35. Among the following, whichis soluble RNA?(1) hnRNA (2) rRNA(3) mRNA (4) tRNA 36. Portion of gene which is transcribed but not translated is:-(1) exon (2) intron (3) cistron (4) codon 37. The smallest RNA is:-(1) r-RNA (2) m-RNA(3) t-RNA (4) nuclear RNA 38. In a cell ……….is the most abundant RNA(1) r-RNA (2) t-RNA(3) m-RNA (4) None of these 39. One strand of DNA (non template) has base sequence CAG, TCG, GAT. What will be the sequence of bases in m-RNA:-(1) AGC, CTA, CTA (2) GTC, AGC, CTC (3) CAG. UCG. GAU(4) GAC. TAG. CTA 40. Who discovered Inverse transcription? (1) Watson and Crick(2) Khorana(3) Temin an Baltimore(4) Meischer 41. The nature of the two strands of a DNA duplex is :-(1) Identical & Complimentary(2) Antiparallel & complimentary(3) Dissimilar & non complimentary(4) Antiparallel & non complimentary 42. On an average, how many purine N2 bases are present in single coil of DNA (1) Four (2) Five(3) Ten (4) Uncertain 43. Distance between two nucleotide pairs of DNA is (1) 0.34 nm (2) 34 A0(3) 3.4 m (4) 34 nm 44. In a double strand DNA amount of Guanine is 35% then what will be the amount of cytosine?(1) 70% (2) 15%(3) 30% (4) 35% 45. Chargaaf ′s rule is given as -(1) Purines = Pyrimidines(2) A + G = T+ C(3) A+ U = G + C(4) A + T / G + C = Const. 46. Nucleotides are bonded by……… in RNA.(1) H – bonds (2) Phospo diester bonds (3) Ionic bonds (4) Salt linkage 47. A nucleoside differs from a nucleotide is not having -(1) Phosphate (2) Sugar(3) Phosphate & sugar (4) Nitrogen base 48. Diameter of the DNA helix showed by Wilkins X - ray diffraction is -(1) 10 Å (2) 20 Å(3) 30 Å (4) 40 Å 49. In the DNA of an animal percentage of Adenine is 30 then percentage of Guanine will be -(1) 40 (2) 30 (3) 20 (4) 70 50. DNA and RNA-Similarity is(1) Both are polymer of nucleotides(2) Both have similar pyrimidine(3) Both have similar sugar(4) Both are genetic material 51. Length of one loop of B- DNA-(1) 3.4 nm. (2) 0.34 nm.(3) 20 nm. (4) 10 nm. 52. If base order in one chain of DNA is "ATCGA" then how many no. of H–bond found in DNA duplex :–(1) 20 (2) 12(3) 10 (4) 11 53. Purine nitrogen bases in DNA are:-(1) Uracil and Guanine(2) Guanine and Adenine(3) Adenine and cytosine(4) None 54. Two free ribonucleotide units are interlinked with: (1) Peptide bond (2) Disulphide bond (3) Hydrogen bond (4) Phosphodiester bond 55. The total number of nucleotides in short DNA segment which has 80 thymine and 90 guanine bases. (1) 160 (2) 40 (3) 80 (4) 340 56. Prokaryotic DNA is :-(1) double stranded circular(2) single stranded circular(3) double stranded linear(4) double stranded RNA as nucleic acid 57. Nucleoside is :-(1) Polymer of nucleic acid(2) Phosphoric acid + base(3) Phosphoric acid + sugar + base(4) Sugar + base 58. Which of the following sugar is present in the back bone of (1) Deoxyribose (2) Ribose(3) Sucrose (4) Maltose 59. Geneticmaterialof Retrovirus (1) DNA only (2) RNA only(3) DNA or RNA only (4) None 60. In a nucleotide H3PO4 binds to which carbon atom of pentose sugar :-(1) Only Ist carbon(2) Only 3rd carbon(3) Only 5th carbon(4) Both 3rd and 5th carbon 61. Mature eukaryotic m–RNA is recognised by(1) Shine dalgarno sequence at 5′ end(2) 7–methyl guanosine at 5′ end and polyadenine bases at 3′ end(3) Anti shine dalgarno sequence at 5′ end(4) Presence of coding and noncoding sequence 62. In DNA transcription unit is –(1) Promoter (2) Structural gene(3) Terminator (4) All 63. Promoter is the site for the initiation of………………. in DNA(1) Replication (2) Translation(3) Transcription (4) Both (2) & (3) 64. Main enzyme of transcription–(1) DNA dependent DNA polymerase(2) DNA dependent RNA polymerase(3) RNA dependent RNA polymerase(4) RNA dependent DNA polymerase 65. ………….. is Removal of introns and joining of exons (1) Capping (2) Tailing(3) Splicing (4) All 66. In m-RNA a codon has:-(1) 3-bases (2) 2-bases (3) 1-base (4) Number of bases vary 67. A DNA strand is directly involved in the synthesis of all the following except-(1) Another DNA (2) t-RNA & m-RNA(3) r-RNA (4) Protein 68. Who discovered Genetic code?(1) Nirenberg & Mathei(2) Kornberg & Crick(3) Khorana & Kornberg(4) Gamow 69. By chemically synthesizing the trinucleotides genetic code was deciphered by-(1) Watson & Crick(2) Beadle & Tatum(3) Briggs & King(4) M.W. Nirenberg 70. Nirenberg synthesized an m-RNA containing 34 poly-Adenine (A-A-A-A-A-A-----) and found a polypeptide formed of 11 poly-lysine .This proved that genetic code for lysine was(1) one-adenine (2) A-A doublet(3) A-A-A triplet (4) Many adenines 71. 64 Codons constitute genetic code because-(1) There was 64 types of amino acid(2) 64 types of t-RNA(3) Genetic code is triplet(4) There are 64 enzymes 72. For the start of polypeptide (protein) chain synthesiswhich codon gives signal?(1) AUG (2) UGA(3) GUA (4) UAG 73. What is the function of non-sense codons?(1) To release polypeptide chain from t-RNA (2) To form an unspecified amino acid (3) To terminate the message of a gene controlled protein synthesis-(4) To convert a sense DNA into non sense DNA 74. In protein synthesis termination of chain growth is brought about by-(1) UUG, UGC, UCA (2) UCG, GCG, ACC (3) UAA, UAG, UGA (4) UUG, UAG, UCG 75. Genetic code determines-(1) Structural pattern of an organism(2) Sequence of amino acid in protein chain(3) Variation in offsprings(4) constancy of morphological trait 76. m - RNA is attached with -(1) E.R. (2) Ribosome(3) Nucleus (4) Lysosome 77. Sometimes the starting codon is GUG in place of AUG, GUG normally stands for:-(1) Valine (2) Glycine (3) Methionine (4) Tyrosine 78. Which one of the following triplet codes, is correctly matched with its specificity for an amino acid in protein synthesis or as ′start′ or ′stop′ codon:-(1) UCG – Start (2) UUU – Stop (3) UGU – Leusine (4) UAC – Tyrosine 79. During translation initiation in prokaryotes, a GTP molecule is needed in:-(1) Formation of formyl-met-tRNA(2) Binding of 30S subunit of ribosome with mRNA(3) Association of 30 S-mRNA with formyl-met tRNA(4) Association of 50 S subunit of ribosome with initiation complex 80. Degeneration of a genetic code is attributed to the :-(1) First member of a codon(2) Second member of a codon(3) Entire codon(4) Third member of a codon 81. Acidic nature of DNA is due to:-(1) Sugar (2) Phosphoric acid (3) Purine (4) Pyrimidine 82. T.M.V. contains:-(1) D N A(2) R.N.A. + Protein(3) D.N.A. + R.N.A.(4) D.N.A. + Protein 83. In place of Thymine of DNA, ………. base is present in R N A(1) Thymine (2) Uracil(3) Adenine (4) None of these 84. Genetic information are transferred from nucleus to cytoplasm of cell through:-(1) DNA (2) RNA (3) Lysosomes (4) ACTH 85. If one strand of double stranded DNA, consists of the sequence 3′–ATTCGTAC–5′, then the complementary sequence must be –(1) 5′–UAAGCAUG–3′(2) 3′–TAAGCATG–5′(3) 5′–TAAGCATG–3′(4) 5′–TAAGCATG–3′ in the reverse direction 86. Among the following statements which one is a false?(1) DNA is chemically less reactive, as compared to RNA(2) RNA mutate at a faster rate, as compared to DNA(3) Guanyl transferase enzyme helps in capping process during splicing of hn-RNA (4) r RNA is less abundantRNA in an animal cell 87. The reason for uniform diameter in DNA molecule is?(1) Double stranded (2) Presence of phosphate (3) Specific base pairing between purine and pyrimidine (4) Specific base pairing between purine and purine 88. Following structure is related to which compound?
(1) Adenine (2) Guanine(3) Uracil(4) Thymine 89. If the sequence of bases in one strand of DNA is known then the sequence in other strand can be predicted on the basis of–(1) Antiparallel(2) Complementary(3) Polarity (4) Coiling 90. The unequivocal proof that DNA is the genetic material came from the experiments of –(1) Hershey and chaese (1952)(2) Frederic Griffith (1928)(3) Watson and Crick(4) Meselson and Stal (1958) DNA REPLICATION 91. In process of replication deoxyribonucleoside triphosphate(1) acting as substrate(2) providing energy for polymerisation reaction(3) acting as an enzyme(4) both (1) & (2) 92. DNA duplication occurs at(1) Meiosis – II(2) Mitotic interphase(3) Mitosis only(4) Meiosis and mitosis both 93. DNA Replication occurs at -(1) G0& G1(2) G2 – stage(3) S - Stage (4) Mitotic phase 94. A DNA molecule in which both strands have radioactive thymidine is allowed to duplicate in an environment containing non- radioactive thymidine. What will be the exact number of DNA molecules that contains the radioactive thymidine after 3 duplications -(1) One (2) Two(3) Four (4) Eight 95. A bacterium with completely radioactive DNA was allowed to replicate in a non- radioactive medium for two generation. What % of the bacteria should contain radioactive DNA:-(1) 100 % (2) 50 % (3) 25 % (4) 12.5 % 96. what shall be the sequence of its complementary strand-if the base sequence of one strand of DNA is GAT , TAG ,CAT , GAC (1) CAT, CTG, ATC, GTA(2) GTA, ATC, CTG, GTA(3) ATC, GTA, CTG, GTA(4) CTA, ATC, GTA, CTG 97. Method of DNA replication in which two strands of DNA separates and synthesizes new strands:-(1) Dispersive (2) Conservative (3) Semiconservative (4) Non conservative 98. During replication of a bacterial chromosome DNA synthesis starts from a replication origin site and(1) RNA primers are not involved(2) is facilitated by telomerase(3) moves in one direction of the site(4) moves in bi-directional way 99. In a polynucleotide chain, which one of the following hydrolyses internal phosphodiester bonds (1) Lipase (2) Protease (3) Exonuclease (4) Endonuclease 100. DNA replication nature is:-(1) Conservation (2) Non conservative (3) Semi-conservative (4) Cyanobacteria 101. What would happen if in a gene encoding a polypeptide of 50 amino acids, 25th codon (UAU) is mutated to UAA:-(1) A polypeptide of 24 amino acids will be formed (2) Two polypeptides of 24 and 25 amino acids will be formed (3) A polypeptide of 49 amino acids will be formed (4) A polypeptide of 25 amino acids will be formed 102. A sequence of how many nucleotides in messenger RNA makes a codon for an amino acid?(1) Three (2) Four(3) One (4) Two 103. A strand of DNA has following base sequence 3′– AAAAGTGACTAGTGA–5′. On transcription, it produces an m–RNA which of the following anticodon of t–RNA recognizes the third codon of this mRNA:–(1) AAA (2) CUG (3) GAC (4) CTG 104. Protein synthesis occurs in an animal cell(1) On ribosomes present in cytoplasm as well as in mitochondria (2) On ribosomes present in the nucleolus as well as in cytoplasm(3) Only on ribosomes attached to the nuclear envelope and endoplasmic reticulum(4) Only on the ribosomes present in cytosol 105. Select the true statement for protein synthesis (translation) :(1) Amino acids are directly recognized by m-RNA(2) The third base of the codon is less specific(3) Only one codon codes for an amino acid(4) Every t-RNA molecule has more than one amino acid attachment site 106. The drug streptomycin inhibits the process of:-(1) Prokaryotic translation (2) Eukaryotic translation (3) Prokaryotic transcription (4) Eukaryotic transcription 107.Translation is the process of(1) D.N.A. is formed on D.N.A template (2) R.N.A. is formed on D.N.A. template (3) D.N.A. is formed on R.N.A. template (4) Protein is formed from R.N.A. message 108. If the 25th amino acid is mutated to UAA, in a polypeptide chain of 125 amino acids, then :-(1) A polypeptide of 124 amino acid is formed(2) A polypeptide of 25 amino acid is formed(3) A polypeptide of 24 amino acid is formed(4) Any of the above can be possible 109. …….. was the first codon discovered by Nirenberg and Mathii.(1) CCC (2) GGG (3) UUU (4) AAA 110. ……………… is not correct about translation:-(1) It starts with AUG (2) Stopped at termination codon (3) Based on operon model (4) Occurs in nucleus 111. t-RNA attaches, amino acid at it’s:-(1) 3′ end (2) 5′ end (3) Anticodon (4) Loop 112. Out of 64 codons only 61 codes for the 20 different amino acids. This character of genetic code is called (1) Degeneracy (2) Non ambiguous nature (3) Redundancy (4) Overlapping 113. Anticodons are found in:-(1) m RNA (2) t RNA (3) r RNA (4) In all 114. Who proposed one-gene-one enzyme hypothesis?(1) Beadle and Tatum (2) Jacob and Monod (3) Lederberg (4) Watson and Crick 115. For incorporation of 25 amino acids in peptide chainhow many ATP and GTP molecules are required respectively?(1) 20 ATP, 20 GTP (2) 25 ATP, 25 GTP (3) 50 ATP, 50 GTP (4) 25 ATP 50 GTP 116. Of the following RNA which one play structural and catalytic role during translation.(1) m-RNA (2) t-RNA(3) r-RNA (4) All 117. …………… is the transfer of genetic information from a polymer of nucleotides to a polymer of amino acid.(1) Replication (2) Transcription (3) Translation (4) Reverse transcription 118. The translation refers to–(1) Polymerisation of nitrogen bases (2) Polymerisation of nucleotides (3) Polymerisation of nucleosides (4) Polymerisation of amino acids 119. Khorana & his colleagues synthesized an RNA molecule with repeating sequences of U G N2– bases. The RNA with "UGU GUG UGU GUG" produced a tetra peptide with alternating sequences of cystein and valine. This prove that codon for cystein & valine is(1) UGG, GUU (2) UUG, GGU(3) UGU & GUG (4) GUG & UGU 120. Gene and cistron words are sometimes used synonymously because–(1) One cistron contains many genes(2) One gene contains many cistrons(3) One gene contains one cistron(4) One gene contains no cistron 121. The direction of DNA replication is: (1) From 5′ end towards 3′ end(2) From 3′ end towards 5′ end(3) Amino terminus to carboxy terminus(4) Carboxy terminus to amino terminus 122. Semi conservation replication of DNA was given by(1) Watson and Crick(2) Bateson and Punnett(3) Messelson and Stahl(4) Avery, McCarty and MacLeod 123. In DNA multiplicationwhich enzyme is used?(1) RNA polymerase (2) DNA endonuclease (3) Exonuclease (4) DNA Polymerase 124. Mode of DNA replication in E. coli is:-(1) Conservative and unidirectional (2) Semi conservative and unidirectional (3) conservative and bidirectional (4) Semi conservative and bidirectional 125. Which enzyme is used to join DNA fragments:-(1) Terminase (2) Endonuclease (3) Ligase (4) DNA polymerase 126. Okazaki fragments are synthesised on ………(1) Leading strands of DNA only(2) Lagging strands of DNA only(3) Both leading and lagging strands of DNA(4) Complementary DNA 127. DNA replication includes:-(1) DNA ligase (2) DNA polymerase and ligase (3) RNA polymerase and ligase(4) All of these 128. In DNA replication, the primer is:-(1) A small deoxyribonucleotide polymer (2) A small ribonucleotide polymer (3) Helix destabilizing protein (4) Enzyme taking part in joining nucleotides of new strand 129. The strand of DNA, which does not code for anything is referred to as :-(1) Template strand(2) Antisense strand(3) Coding strand(4) Noncoding strand 130. During DNA replication discontinuously synthesized fragments are later joined by the enzyme – (1) Ligase (2) DNA polymerase (3) RNA primer (4) Primase 131. What is Replicationfork?(1) Large opening of the DNA helix(2) Small opening of the DNA helix(3) Tightly coiled part of DNA helix(4) Loosely coiled part of DNA helix 132. The DNA dependent DNA polymerase catalyse polymerisation in–(1) 3′  5′ direction(2) 5′  3′ direction(3) Depend on the nature of template strand(4) both (1) & (2) 133. Main enzyme of DNA replication is –(1) DNA dependent RNA polymerase(2) DNA dependent DNA polymerase(3) RNA dependent RNA polymerase(4) RNA dependent DNA polymerase 134. The Process of copying genetic information from one strand of DNA into Y is termed as Z .Y Z
YX
(1) TranscriptionRNA
(2) RNA Transcription
(3) DNATranslation
(4) ReplicationRNA
 135. Code in RNA corresponding to AGCT in DNA-(1) TACA (2) UCGA(3) TCGA (4) AGUC 136. Which of the following is called adaptor molecule-(1) DNA (2) m-RNA(3) t-RNA (4) RNA 137. Which may be attached with Adenine base in RNA -(1) Guanine (2) Cytosine(3) Uracil (4) Thymine 138. In the base sequence of one starand of DNA is CAT, TAG , CAT , CAT, GAC what would be the base sequence of its complementary m-RNA-(1) GUA, GUA, CUG, AUC, CUG(2) AUG, CUG, CUC, GUA, CUG(3) GUA, AUC, GUA, GUA, CUG(4) GUC, CUG, CUG, CUA, CUU 139. The process by which DNA of the nucleus passes genetic information to m-RNA is called-(1) Transcription (2) Translocation(3) Translation (4) Transportation 140. A sequence of three consecutive bases in a t- RNA molecule which specifically binds to a complementary codon sequence in m RNA is known as -(1) Triplet(2) Non - sense codon(3) Anti codon(4) Termination codon 141. A gene containing multiple exons and at least one intron is termed as:-(1) split gene(2) operator gene(3) synthetic gene(4) Epistatic gene 142. Gene which is responsible for the synthesis of a polypeptide chain is called:-(1) Promoter gene (2) Structural gene(3) Regulator gene (4) Operator gene 143. Which is true for tryptophan operon :-(1) It is the example of inducible operon(2) It is example of repressible operon(3) on ⟶ off(4) (2) and (3) both are correct 144. Which is true for repressible operon:–(1) Off ⟶on (2) Inactive repressor + Co-repressor = active repressor (3) Active repressor + Inducer = inactive repressor (4) On ⟶off 145. What does "lac" refer to, in what we call the lac operon:-(1) Lactose (2) Lactase (3) Lac insect (4) The enzyme 146. Which of the following is not produced by E.Coli in the lactose operon -(1) b galactosidase(2) Thiogalactoside transacetylase(3) Lactose dehydrogenase(4) Lactose permease 147. A functional complex comprising a cluster of genes including structural gene, a promoter gene, an operator gene and a regulator gene was discovered by :-(1) Beadle and Tatum (1958)(2) Watson and crick (1953)(3) Jacob and Monad (1961)(4) Britten and Davidson (1961) 148. The operon model for the first time was explained (1) Francois Jacob (2) Jacques Monod (3) Francois Jacob and Jacques Monod (4) Beadle & Tatum 149. The accessibility of promoter regions of prokaryotic DNA by RNA polymerase is in many cases regulated by the interaction of some protein with sequences termed as –(1) Promoter (2) Operator(3) Regulator (4) Cistron 150. By repressor, regulation of lac operon is referred to as–(1) Positive regulation (2) Nagative regulation (3) Both (1) and (2)(4) None 151. select the incorrect statement(1) i-gene codes for the repressor of lac operon(2) z-gene codes for the beta-galactosidase(3) y-gene codes for transacetylase(4) three gene products are required for metabolism of lactose 152. The primary step for regulation of gene expression is …(1) Transport of m-RNA from nucleus to the cytoplasm(2) Translational level(3) Processing level(4) Transcriptional level 153. Find out the correct sequence of structural gene in lac operon(1) y, a, z (2) a, z, y(3) z, y, a (4) z, a y 154. The concept of sudden genetic change which breeds true in an organism is visualized as:-(1) Natural selection (2) Inheritance of acquired characters (3) Mutation (4) Independent assortment 155. What is mutation?(1) An abrupt or discontinuous change which is inherited (2) A factor for plant growth (3) A change which affects parents only and is never inherited (4) A change which affects the offspring of F2 generation 156. The change of chromosomal parts between non homologous pairs of chromosome:-(1) Crossing over/Transduction (2) Translocation (3) Inversion (4) Transition 157. Which of the following can be called a mutation:-(1) The halfing of the chromosome number at meiosis (2) The doubling of the chromosome after syngamy(3) The possession of an additional chromosome(4) All the above 158. Generallymutations are:-(1) Dominant (2) Recessive (3) Codominant (4) Incompletely dominant 159. Genetic mutations occur in:-(1) DNA (2) RNA (3) Protein (4) RNA & protein both 160. Which of the following undergoes change in mutation:-(1) Chromosome (2) Structure of gene (3) Sequence of gene (4) Any of the above 161. The locus of mutation is:-(1) Gene (2) Chromosome (3) Centromere (4) Nucleus 162. In the octaploid wheat, the haploid (n) and basic numbers (x) of chromosomes are:-(1) n=21, x=7 (2) n=28, x=7(3) n=7 x=28 (4) n=7, x=21 163. Non-ionizing radiations commonly used for inducing mutations in organisms are:-(1) UV-rays (2) Beta-rays (3) X-rays (4) Gamma-rays 164. The smallest unit of genetic material which upon mutation produce a phenotypic effect is:-(1) Mutons (2) Recon (3) Gene (4) Cistron 165. The process which provides raw material for evolution is:-(1) Sexual reproduction (2) Meiosis (3) Mutation (4) Independent assortment 166. Haploids are preferred over diploids for mutation studies because:-(1) Recessive mutation is expressed in F1(2) Recessive mutation is expressed in F2(3) Dominant phenotype is expressed(4) Dominant phenotype is suppressed 167. Type of gene mutation which involves replacement of purine with pyrimidine or vice versa (OR) the substitution of one type of base with another type of base is:-(1) Transduction (2) Transversion (3) Translocation (4) Transcription 168. The minimum requirement for mutation is:-(1) Change of triplet codon (2) Change in single nucleotide (3) Change in whole DNA(4) Change in single strand of DNA 169. Mutations are:-(1) Always useful (2) Mostly useful(3) Never useful (4) Rarely useful 170. Sickle cell anaemia is an example of (1) Frame shift mutation(2) Point mutation(3) Segmental mutation(4) Gibberish mutation 171. The most striking example of frame shift mutation was found in a disease called:-(1) Sickle cell anaemia (2) Colour blindness (3) Laesh-Nyhn Syndrome (4) Thalassemia 172. A nutritionally wild type organism, which does not require any additional growth supplement is known as:-(1) Holotype (2) Auxotroph (3) Prototroph (4) Phenotype 173. Given below is the representation of a kind of chromosomal mutation: What is the kind of mutation represented
(1) deletion (2) duplication (3) inversion (4) reciprocal translocation 174. The "cri-du-chat" syndrome is caused by change in chromosome structure involving:-(1) Deletion (2) Duplication (3) Inversion (4) Translocation 175. A class of mutation induced by addition or deletion of a nucleotide is called:-(1) Missense (2) Non-sense (3) Substitution (4) frame shift 176. Chromosomes with genes abcdefg becoming abedcfg is: (1) duplication (2) deletion (3) translocation (4) inversion 177. Gene mutation is: (1) mutation in the genes of DNA (2) mutation in the phosphodiester linkage (3) mutation in the chromosomes (4) change in the sequence of nitrogenous bases 178. Chromosome number 2n-1 is an example of(1) trisomy (2) euploidy(3) polyploidy (4) monosomy 179. After a mutation at a genetic locus the character of an organism changes due to the change in(1) protein structure(2) DNA replication(3) protein synthesis pattern(4) RNA transcription pattern 180. DNA finger printing was invented by:–(1) Kary Mullis (2) Alec Jeffery(3) Dr. Paul Berg (4) Francis Collins 181. Which of the following is required as inducer(s) for the expression of Lac operon?(1) Glucose(2) Galactose(3) Lactose(4) Lactose and galactose 182. A complex of ribosomes attached to a single strand of RNA is known as:-(1) Polysome (2) Polymer (3) Polypeptide (4) Okazaki fragment 183. Which of the following is not required for any of the techniques of DNA fingerprinting available at present?(1) Polymerase chain reaction(2) Zinc finger analysis(3) Restriction enzymes(4) DNA–DNA hybridization 184. Which one of the following is the starter codon?(1) AUG (2) UGA (3) UAA (4) UAG 185. Taylor conducted the experiment to prove semiconservative mode of chromosome replication on: (1) Drosophila melanogaster (2) E. coli (3) Vinca rosea(4) Vicia faba 186. The equivalent of a structural gene is: (1) Operon (2) Recon (3) Muton (4) Cistron 187. Which of the following rRNA acts as structural RNA as well as ribozyme in bacteria?(1) 23 S rRNA (2) 5.8 S rRNA (3) 5 S rRNA (4) 18 S rRNA 188. A non-Proteinaceous enzyme is:-(1) Ligase (2) Deoxyribonucleic (3) Lysozyme (4) Ribozyme 189. A molecule that can act as a genetic material must fulfil the traits given below, except :-(1) It should be unstable structurally and chemically(2) It should provide the scope for slow changes that are required for evolution(3) It should be able to express itself in the form of ′Mendelian characters′(4) It should be able to generate its replica 190. DNA-dependent RNA polymerase catalyses transcription on one strand of the DNA which is called the :-(1) Alpha strand (2) Antistrand(3) Template strand (4) Coding strand 191. …………. is the mechanism that causes a gene to move from one linkage group to another . :(1) Translocation (2) Crossing-over(3) Inversion (4) Duplication 192. Reverse transcriptase using RNA, forms which of the following?(1) Double stranded DNA(2) Double stranded RNA(3) DNA & RNA(4) Single stranded RNA 193. An immature stop codon leads to:-(1) Mutation(2) Non-sense mutation(3) Variation(4) Intron 194.
 On the basis of given DNA fingerprint, match the childrens (K & L) with their respective parent (A, B, C and D):-(1) K-A, L-A (2) K-A, L-D (3) K-A, L-C (4) K-B, L-A 195. Point mutation means?(1) Change in single base pair in DNA(2) Change in single base pair in RNA(3) Change in double base pair in DNA(4) Change in double base pair in RNA 196. Genetic material is …….in most of the plant viruses.-(1) ssDNA (2) ssRNA(3) dsRNA (4) ssRNA + ssDNA 197. Biological name of wheat is:-(1) Triticum aestivum (2) Triticum triticale(3) Triticum sativum (4) Triticum tuberosum 198. DNA as the genetic material was finallyproved from the experiments of: (1) Hershey and Chase (2) Avery, Mcleod and McCarty (3) Hargobind Khorana (4) Griff 199. DNA fragments are:(1) Negatively charged(2) Neutral(3) Either positively or negatively charge depending on their size(4) Positively charged 200. If there are 999 bases in an RNA that codes for a protein with 333 amino acids, and the base at position 901 is deleted such that the length of the RNA becomes 998 bases, how many codons will be altered?(1) 11 (2) 33(3) 333 (4) 1 201. Which one of the following pairs of terms/names mean one and the same thing(1) Gene pool – genome(2) Codon – gene(3) Cistron – triplet(4) DNA Fingerprinting - DNA profiling 202. Which step does not involve in DNA finger printing(1) Southern blotting(2) Gel electrophoresis(3) Restriction enzyme digestion(4) Northern blotting 203. ……… is the technique of transferring DNA fragment separated on Agarose gel to a synthetic membrane such as nitrocellulose (1) Northern blotting (2) Southern blotting(3) Western blotting (4) Dot blotting 204. Western blotting is used for the identification of:-(1) DNA (2) RNA (3) Protein (4) All the above 205. Techniques whichare used in analysing restriction fragment length polymorphism (RFLP) :-(a) Electrophoresis(b) Electroporation(c) Methylation(d) Restriction digestion(1) ′a′ and ′c′ (2) ′c′ and ′d′(3) ′a′ and ′d′ (4) ′b′ and ′d′ 206. The approximate number of genes contained in the humangenome (1) 40,000 (2) 30,000(3) 80,000 (4) 1,00,000 207. The transfer of protein from electrophoretic gel to nitrocellulose membrane is known as:-(1) transferase (2) northern blotting(3) western blotting(4) southern blotting 208. ………………. is not associated with HGP–(1) Bioinformatics(2) Cloning vectors BAC & YAC(3) Automated DNA sequencers(4) VNTR 209. In density gradient centrifugation, the bulk DNA forms_____ while satellite DNA forms________.(1) Major peak; Minor peak(2) Minor peak; Major peak(3) Major peak; Major peak(4) Minor peak; Minor peak 210. Which step is not correct in DNA finger printing–(1) Isolation of DNA(2) Digestion of DNA by DNA ligase enzyme(3) Separation of DNA by electrophoresis(4) Hybridisation using labelled VNTR probe 211. DNA fingerprinting method is very useful for -(1) DNA tests for identity &relationships(2) Forensic studies(3) Polymorphism(4) All of the above 212. Which antibiotic inhibits interaction between Trna and mRNA during bacterial protein synthesis?(1) Erythromycin (2) Neomycin(3) Streptomycin (4) Tetracycline 213. Amino acid sequence, in protein synthesis is decided by the sequence of(1) tRNA (2) mRNA(3) cDNA (4) rRNA 214. One gene-one enzyme hypothesis was postulated by (1) R. Franklin (2) Hershey and Chase (3) A.Garrod (4) Beadle and Tatum 215. One turn of the helix in a B-form DNA is approximately(1) 20 nm (2) 0.34 nm(3) 3.4 nm (4) 2 nm 216. Antiparallel strands of a DNA molecule means that(1) one strand turns anti-clockwise(2) the phosphate groups of two DNA strands, at their ends, share the same position(3) the phosphate groups at the start of two DNA strands are in opposite position (pole) (4) one strand turns clockwise 217. Cri-du-chat syndrome in humans is caused by the(1) Fertilization of an XX egg by a normal Y-bearing sperm(2) Loss of half of the short arm of chromosome 5(3) Loss of half of the long arm of chromosome 5(4) Trisomy of 21stchromosome 218. Triticale, the first man-made cereal crop, has been obtained by crossing wheat with –(1) Rye (2) Pearl millet(3) Sugarcane (4) Barley 219. During protein synthesis in an organism, at one point the process comes to a halt. Select the group of the three codons from the following from which any one of the three could bring about this halt –(1) UUU, UCC, UAU (2) UUC, IIA, UAC(3) UAG, UGA, UAA (4) UUG, UCA, UCG 220. Thymine is –(1) 5–Methyl uracil (2) 4–Methyl uracil(3) 3–Methyl uracil (4) 1–Methyl uracil 221. During DNA replication, Okazaki fragments are used to elongate:(1) The lagging strand towards replication fork.(2) The leading strand away from replication fork.(3) The lagging strand away from the replication fork.(4) The leading strand towards replication fork. 222. Which of the following RNAs should be most abundant in animal cell?(1) t-RNA (2) m-RNA(3) mi-RNA (4) r-RNA 223. What is the criterion for DN A fragments movement on Agarose gel during gel electrophoresis ?(1) The smaller the fragment size, the farther it moves(2) Positively charged fragments move to farther end(3) Negatively charged fragments do not move(4) The larger the fragment size, the farther it moves 224. DNA replication in bacteria occurs:(1) Within nucleolus(2) Prior to fission(3) Just before transcription(4) During S phase 225. Spliceosomes are not found in cells of;(1) Fungi (2) Animals(3) Bacteria (4) Plants 226. The association of histone H1 with a nucleosome indicates:(1) DNA replication is occurring.(2) The DNA is condensed into a Chromatin Fibre.(3) The DNA double helix is exposed.(4) Transcription is occurring. 227. The process of formation of RNA from DNA is known as(1) Transcription(2) Translation(3) Replication(4) Transformation 228. If base sequence in m-RNA is 5′ UAC GUA CGU ACG UAC GUA CGU ACG 3′ then what will be sequence of template strand?(1) 5′ CGT ACG TAC GTA CGT ACG TAC GTA 3′(2) 5′ TAC GTA CGT ACG TAC GTA CGT ACG 3′(3) 5′ ATG CAT GCA TGC ATG CAT GCA TGC 3′(4) 5′ GTA TAC ACG TGC GTA GTA CAG GCA 3′ 229.
Choose correct one :-(1) a-DNA, b-H1-histone, c-histone octamer, d-core of histone(2) a-core of histone, b-DNA, c-H1 histone, d-histone octamer(3) a-Histone octamer, b-core of histone, c-DNA, d-H1 histone(4) a-H1 histone, b-histone octamer, c-core of histone, d-DNA 230. Below digram represent the DNA finger printing Which is true about diagram ?
(1) All are graphically similar(2) All are graphically dissimilar(3) Only A and C are similar(4) Only B and D are similar 231. Match the column-I with column-II :-
Options :-(1) a-i, b-iii, c-ii, d-v (2) a-ii, b-iv, c-iii, d-i(3) a-iv, b-ii, c-iii, d-i (4) a-i, b-ii, c-iii, d-iv 232. The following samples are collected from sugarcane field. Which of the following is true?
(1) All are dissimilar (2) All are similar (3) A and D are similar (4) A and B are similar 233. As the codon, which is made by four N2 bases similary protein is made up by how many amino acids?(1) 20 (2) 10 (3) 11 (4) 25 234. Match column-I to column-II :-
Options :-(1) A-ii, B-v, C-iii, D-iv(2) A-v, B-iii, C-i, D-iv(3) A-ii, B-iv, C-iii, D-i(4) A-iii, B-ii, C-v, D-i 235. Formation of protein on RNA-strand is called:-(1) Transcription (2) Translation (3) Replication (4) Transformation 236. The experimental proof for semiconservative replication of DNA was first shown in a(1) Fungus (2) Bacterium(3) Plant (4) Virus 237. Select the correct Match: (1) Alec Jeffreys – Streptococcus pneumoniae (2) Alfred Hershey and – TMV Martha Chase (3) Matthew Meselson – Pisum sativum and F. Stahl(4) Francois Jacob and – Lac operon Jacques Monod 238. Select the correct Match :(1) Ribozyme - Nucleic acid(2) F2 × Recessive parent - Dihybrid cross(3) T.H. Morgan – Transduction(4) G. Mendel - Transformation 239. AGGTATCGCAT is a sequence from the coding strand of a gene. What will be the corresponding sequence of the transcribed mRNA?(1) AGGUAUCGCAU(2) UGGTUTCGCAT(3) ACCUAUGCGAU(4) UCCAUAGCGUA 240. All of the following are part of an operon except:-(1) an operator (2) structural genes (3) an enhancer (4) a promoter 241. In which one of the following combinations (1–4) of the number of the chromosomes is the present day hexaploid wheat correctly represented Combination (1) (2) (3) (4)Monosomic 21 7 21 41Haploid 28 28 7 21Nullisomic 42 40 42 40Trisomic 43 42 43 43 242. Differentiation of organs and tissues in a developing organism is association with:-(1) Developmental mutations (2) Differential expression of genes (3) Lethal mutations (4) Deletion of genes 243. Molecular basis of organ differentiation depends on the modulation in transcription by: (1) RNA polymerase (2) Ribosome (3) Transcription factor (4) Anticodon 244. The Okazaki fragments in DNA chain growth :(1) Result in transcription(2) Polymerize in the 3′-to-5′ direction and forms replication fork(3) Prove semi-conservative nature of DNA replication(4) Polymerize in the 5′-to-3′ direction and explain 3′-to-5′ DNA replication 245. The two polynucleotide chains in DNA are: (1) Parallel (2) Discontinuous (3) Antiparallel (4) Semiconservative 246. In the hexaploid wheat, the haploid (n) and basic (x) numbers of chromosomes are:-(1) n=7 and x=21 (2) n=21 and x=21(3) n=21 and x=14 (4) n=21 and x=7 247. Which of the following nitrogen base is not found in DNA-(1) Thymine (2) Cytosine(3) Guanine (4) Uracil 248. Polysome is formed by :-(1) A ribosome with several subunits(2) Ribosomes attached to each other in a linear arrangement(3) Several ribosomes attached to a single mRNA(4) Many ribosomes attached to a strand of endoplasmic reticulum 249. Which one of the following pairs of nitrogenous bases of nucleic acids, is wrongly matched with the category mentioned against it ?(1) Guanine, Adenine – Purines(2) Adenine, Thymine – Purines(3) Thymine, Uracil – Pyrimidines(4) Uracil, Cytosine – Pyrimidines 240. In the DNA molecule:-(1) the proportion of Adenine in relation to thymine varies with the organism (2) there are two strands which run antiparallel one in 5′  3′ direction and other in 3′  5′(3) the total amount of purine nucleotides and pyrimidine nucleotides is not always equal(4) there are two strands which run parallel in the 5′  3′ direction 251. ……….. of codons is correctly matched with their function or the signal for the particular amino acid ?(1) AUG, ACG – Start/Methionine (2) UUA, UCA –Leucine (3) GUU, GCU –Alanine (4) UAG, UGA – Stop 252. ………bond is not related to nucleic acid: (1) H-bond (2) Ester bond (3) Glycosidic bond (4) Peptide Bond 253. Haploids are more suitable for mutation studies than the diploids. This is because :-(1) haploids are more abundant in nature than diploids(2) All mutations, whether dominant or recessive are expressed in haploids(3) Haploids are reproductively more stable than diploids(4) Mutagens penetrate in haploids more effectively than in diploids 254. What is not true for genetic code :-(1) It is unambiguous(2) A codon in mRNA is read in a non-contiguous fashion(3) It is nearly universal(4) It is degenerate 255. Removal of introns and joining the exons in a defined order in a transcription unit is called:-(1) Capping (2) Splicing (3) Tailing (4) Transformation 256. Semiconservative replication of DNA was first demonstrated in:-(1) Salmonella typhimurium (2) Drosophila melanogaster (3) Escherichia coli (4) Streptococcus pneumoniae 257. Whose experiments cracked the DNA and discovered unequivocally that a genetic code is a "triplet”:-(1) Beadle and Tatum (2) Nirenberg and Mathaei (3) Hershey and Chase (4) Morgan and Sturtevant 258. Point mutation involves:-(1) Deletion (2) Insertion (3) Change in sing (4) Morgan and Sturtevant 259. Select the two correct statements out of the four (a-d) given below about lac operon(a) Glucose or galactose may bind with the repressor and inactivated(b) In the absence of lactose the repressor binds witht the operator region(c) The z-gene codes for permease(d) This was elucidated by Francois Jacob and Jacque MonodThe correct statements are :(1) (b) and (d) (2) (a) and (b)(3) (b) and (c) (4) (a) and (c) 260. Satellite DNA is useful tool in: (1) Forensic science (2) Genetic engineering (3) Organ transplantation (4) Sex determination 261. ′Nuclein′ term was coined by:-(1) Meischer and Crick (2) Altman (3) Griffith (4) Meischer 262. Codons of proline amino acid are :-(1) CCU CCC CCA(2) CAU CAC CAA(3) GGU GGC GGA(4) AAU AAA AAC 263. Which of the following is incorrect?(1) RNA polymerase II --> Heterogeneous nuclear RNA(2) RNA polymerase III --> t-RNA, Sn-RNA, 5 S-rRNA(3) RNA polymerase I --> r-RNA(4) RNA polymerase I --> t-RNA, Sn-RNA, 5 S-rRNA 264. Choose the correct option regarding above diagram:-
(1) i-inhibitor, z-b-galactosidase, y-permease, a-transacetylase(2) i-inducer, z-transacetylase, y-b-galactosidase, apermease(3) i-repressor, z-permease, y-transacetylase, a-b-galactosidase(4) i-inhibitor, z-transacetylase, y-permease, a-b-galactosidase 265. t-RNA, m-RNA and r-RNA is used in synthesis of :-(1) Carbohydrate (2) Protein(3) Lipid (4) Steroid 266. Which one is incorrect ?(1) DNA --> Ribose sugar(2) Splicing --> Removal of introns(3) Capping --> Adding of 7 mG at 5′end(4) RNA --> Uracil 267. Match the following columns :-
(1) a-iv, b-iii, c-ii, d-i(2) a-iii, b-iv, c-i, d-ii(3) a-ii, b-iii, c-iv, d-i(4) a-i, b-ii, c-iii, d-iv 268. Codon of Arginine amino acid are :-(1) CGU, CGC, CGA(2) UGU, UGC, UGA(3) AGU, AGC, AGA(4) AUA, AUC, AUG 269. Select the correct statement regarding prokaryotes:-(1) DNA dependent RNA polymerase form all types of RNA.(2) Different RNA polymerase form different types of RNA.(3) Single DNA dependent DNA polymerase form one type of RNA.(4) Different DNA dependent DNA polymerase form one type of RNA. 270. Which of the following is incorrect for satellite DNA?(1) High degree of polymorphism.(2) It is not inherited from parent to children.(3) It is used in DNA fingerprinting for genetic diversity.(4) Does not code for any protein. 271. f-174 has which type of genome?(1) ss-RNA (2) ss-DNA(3) ds-DNA (4) ds-RNA 272. All types of RNA are formed by transcription of :-(1) DNA (2) m-RNA(3) r-RNA (4) t-RNA 273. Codon for alanine are :-(1) GCU GCC GCA (2) ACU ACC ACG(3) GAG GAC GAU (4) GUG GUC GUA 274. The one aspect which is not a salient feature of genetic code, is its being :(1) Universal (2) Specific(3) Degenerate (4) Ambiguous 275. Which one of the following does not follow the central dogma of molecular bilogy?(1) Chlamydomonas (2) HIV(3) Pea (4) Mucor 276. PCR and Restriction Fragment Length Polymorphism are the methods for :-(1) DNA sequencing(2) Genetic fingerprinting(3) Study of enzymes(4) Genetic transformation 277. What is it that forms the basis of DNA Fingerprinting?(1) The relative amount of DNA in the ridges and grooves of the fingerprints.(2) Satellite DNA occurring as highly repeated short DNA segments(3) The relative proportions of purines and pyrimidines in DNA(4) The relative difference in the DNA occurence in blood, skin and saliva 278. Read the following four statements (A-D):(A) In transcription, adenosine pairs with uracil.(B) Regulation of lac operon by repressor is referredto as positive regulation.(C) The human genome has approximately 50,000 genes.(D) Haemophilia is a sex-linked recessive disease.How many of the above statements are right?(1) Four (2) One(3) Two (4) Three 279. Which one of the following is a wrong statement regarding mutations?(1) UV and Gamma rays are mutagens(2) Change in a single base pair of DNA does not cause mutation(3) Deletion and insertion of base pairs cause frame shift mutations.(4) Cancer cells commonly show chromosomal aberrations. 280. Which enzyme/s will be produced in a cell in which there is a nonsense mutation in the lac Y gene ?(1) Lactose permease and transacetylase(2) b-galactosidase(3) Lactose permease(4) Transacetylase 281. DNA fragments generated by the restriction endonucleases in a chemical reaction can be separated by :(1) Restriction mapping(2) Centrifugation(3) Polymerase chain reaction(4) Electrophoresis 282. Commonly used vectors for human genome sequencing are :-(1) T-DNA(2) BAC and YAC(3) Expression Vectors(4) T/A Cloning Vectors 283. What is the correct sequence of DNA finger printing? a-seperation of desired DNA by gel electrophoresisb-Digestion by restriction endonucleasec- Isolation of DNAd- Hybridisation using labelled VNTR probee- Southern blotting(1) a --> b --> c --> d --> e(2) b --> d --> e --> a --> c(3) c --> b --> a --> d --> e(4) c --> b --> a --> e --> d 284. In sea urchin DNA, which is double stranded, 17% of the bases were shown to be cytosine. The percentages of the other three bases expected to be present in this DNA are :-(1) G 17%, A 16.5%, T 32.5%(2) G 17%, A 33%, T 33%(3) G 8.5%, A 50%, T 24.5%(4) G 34%, A 24.5%, T 24.5% 285. Gene regulation governing lactose operon of E.coli that involves the lac I gene product is :(1) Negative and inducible because repressor protein prevents transcription(2) Negative and repressible because repressor protein prevents transcription(3) Feedback inhibition because excess of b-galactosidase can switch off transcription(4) Positive and inducible because it can be induced by lactose 286. The movement of a gene from one linkage group to another is called :-(1) Duplication (2) Translocation(3) Crossing over (4) Inversion 287. Which of the following biomolecules does have a phosphodiester bond ?(1) Nucleic acids in a nucleotide(2) Fatty acids in a diglyceride(3) Monosaccharides in a polysaccharide(4) Amino acids in a polypeptide 288. Which one of the following is not applicable to RNA?(1) Chargaff′s rule(2) Complementary base pairing(3) 5′ phosphoryl and 3′ hydroxyl ends(4) Heterocyclic nitrogenous bases 289. Satellite DNA is important because it :(1) Codes for enzymes needed for DNA replication(2) Codes for proteins needed in cell cycle(3) Shows high degree of polymorphism in population and also the same degree of polymorphism in an individual, which is heritable from parents to children(4) Does not code for proteins and is same in all members of the population 290. Identify the correct order of organisation of genetic material from largest to smallest :(1) Chromosome, genome, nucleotide, gene(2) Chromosome, gene, genome, nucleotide(3) Genome, chromosome, nucleotide, gene(4) Genome, chromosome, gene, nucleotid Answer Key
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